Tips To Get Success

Health:

1. Drink plenty of water.
2. Eat breakfast like a king, lunch like a prince and dinner like a beggar.
3. Eat more foods that grow on trees and plants and eat less food that is manufactured in plants.
4. Live with the 3 E's -- Energy, Enthusiasm, and Empathy.
5. Make time to practice meditation, yoga, and prayer..
6. Play more games.
7. Read more books than you did in 2008.
8. Sit in silence for at least 10 minutes each day.
9. Sleep for 7 hours.
10. Take a 10-30 minutes’ walk every day. And while you walk, smile.

Personality:

11. Don't compare your life to others'. You have no idea what their journey is all about.
12. Don't have negative thoughts or things you cannot control. Instead invest your energy in the positive present moment.
13. Don't over do. Keep your limits.
14. Don't take yourself so seriously. No one else does.
15. Don't waste your precious energy on gossip.
16. Dream more while you are awake.
17. Envy is a waste of time. You already have all you need.
18. Forget issues of the past. Don't remind your partner with his/her mistakes of the past. That will ruin your present happiness.
19. Life is too short to waste time hating anyone. Don't hate others.
20. Make peace with your past so it won't spoil the present.
21. No one is in charge of your happiness except you.
22. Realize that life is a school and you are here to learn. Problems are simply part of the curriculum that appear and fade away like algebra class but the lessons you learn will last a lifetime.
23. Smile and laugh more.
24. You don't have to win every argument. Agree to disagree.

Dont Worry

1. I see the right, and I approve it too,
Condemn the wrong, and yet the wrong pursue.
- Ovid
2. If mankind had wished for what is right, they might have
had it long ago.
- William Hazlitt
3. No one knows what he is doing while he acts right; but
of what is wrong we are always conscious.
- Goethe
4. Success is the sole earthly judge of right and wrong.
- Adolf Hitler
5. He that will do right in gross must do wrong by retail.
- Michel De Montaigne

Group I main Exam Syllabus

(DESCRIPTIVE TYPE) FOR MAIN WRITTEN EXAMINATION
POST GRADUATE STANDARD
Code: 001

1. Modern History of India and Indian Culture.

2 Current events of national and international importance.

3 Statistical analysis, graphs and diagrams.

4 Indian Polity

5 Indian economy and Geography of India

and

6 The role and impact of science and technology in the development of India Modern History of India and Indian Culture will cover the broad history of the country from about the middle of the nineteenth century and would also include questions on Gandhi, Tagore, Nehru and Periyar the part relating to Statistical analysis, graphs and diagrams will include exercises to test the candidate's ability to draw commonsense conclusions from information presented in statistical, graphical or diagrammatical form and to point out deficiencies, limitations or inconsistencies therein. The part relating to Indian Polity, will include questions on the political systems in India, In the part pertaining to the Indian Economy and Geography of India, questions will be put on planning in India and the Physical, Economic and social Geography of Tamil Nadu. In the third part relating to the role and impact of science and technology in the development of India, questions will be asked to test the candidate's awareness of the role and impact of science and technology in India, emphasis will be on applied aspects.

Note : - Some of the questions asked in these papers shall be exclusively with reference to Tamil Nadu.

(For all examination except for group I services - main Examination)
SYLLABUS.

The paper on general knowledge will include questions covering the following fields of knowledge: General science, current events of national and international importance , history and culture of India, geography, Indian polity, Indian economy, Indian national movement and freedom struggle, mental ability tests and other related fields.

Questions on general science will cover general appreciation and understanding of science, including matters of every day observation and experience as may be expected of a well educated person who has not made a special study of any scientific discipline. In history emphasis will be on broad general understanding of the subject in its social, economic, political aspects; social and cultural heritage of India emphasizing unity in diversity . In geography emphasis will be on geography of India including the physical, social, economic geography and on the main features of Indian agriculture and natural resources. Questions on Indian polity and economy will test knowledge on the country’s political, executive, judicial system, panchayat raj, rural and community development, and economic planning in India. Questions on Indian national movement will relate to the nature and character of the nineteenth century resurgence, growth of nationalism and attainment of independence. General mental ability test will include analysis of classified data, logical and behavioral reasoning, analogies, school arithmetic, numerical ability and basic concepts of computers. Current events will include latest developments on all the fields detailed above including science and technology.

NOTE: About 20 % of the questions in this paper shall be exclusively with reference to Tamil, Tamilnadu, language and literature, culture and heritage of its people.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

GENERAL STUDIES (DESCRIPTIVE TYPE)
( for group I services main examination-TWO PAPERS)
SYLLABUS.

PAPER-1

1. Modern history of India and Indian culture

2. Current events of national and international importance

3. Statistical analysis , graphs and diagrams

4. Social problems and other current sensitive issues

PAPER-2

1. Indian polity

2. Indian economy and geography of India

3. Role and impact of science and technology in the development of India

4. Tamil language, Tamil society, its culture and heritage

5. Tamil Nadu administration

Modern history of India and Indian culture will cover the broad history of the country from about the middle of the nineteenth century (advent of European invasion) and would include questions on Gandhi, Tagore, Nehru and Periyar. Statistical analysis, graphs and diagrams will include exercises to test the candidates ability to draw commonsense conclusions from information presented in statistical, graphical and diagrammatical form and to point out deficiencies, limitations and inconsistencies therein. Social problems and sensitive issues will include problems like bonded labour, child labour, gender bias, minorities, SC/ST, illiteracy, poverty, employment etc.

Indian polity will include questions on constitution of India, and Political System in India. On Indian economy and geography, questions will be put on planning in India and the physical, economic, social geography of India. On role and impact of science and technology, questions will be asked to test the candidate’s awareness of the latest developments in science and technology with special emphasis on applied aspects. Under Tamil language and culture questions will be put to test the candidate’s general awareness on those topics. Tamil Nadu administration will cover topics in general administration like organizational structure, functions, control, social welfare oriented programmes etc.

Degree Standard and PostGraduate Degree Standard are more or less Same anyhow i here declare the Degree Standard Syllabus

(OBJECTIVE TYPE)

(For all examination except for group I services - main Examination)

The paper on general knowledge will include questions covering the following fields of knowledge:

General science,

current events of national and international importance ,

history and culture of India, geography,

Indian polity, Indian economy,

Indian national movement and freedom struggle,

mental ability tests and other related fields.
Questions on general science will cover general appreciation and understanding of science, including matters of every day observation and experience as may be expected of a well educated person who has not made a special study of any scientific discipline.

In history emphasis will be on broad general understanding of the subject in its social, economic, political aspects; social and cultural heritage of India emphasizing unity in diversity .

In geography emphasis will be on geography of India including the physical, social, economic geography and on the main features of Indian agriculture and natural resources.

Questions on Indian polity and economy will test knowledge on the country’s political, executive, judicial system, panchayat raj, rural and community development, and economic planning in India.

Questions on Indian national movement will relate to the nature and character of the nineteenth century resurgence, growth of nationalism and attainment of independence.

General mental ability test will include analysis of classified data, logical and behavioral reasoning, analogies, school arithmetic, numerical ability and basic concepts of computers. Current events will include latest developments on all the fields detailed above including science and technology.

NOTE: About 20 % of the questions in this paper shall be exclusively with reference to Tamil, Tamilnadu, language and literature, culture and heritage of its people.
--------------------------------------------------------------------
GENERAL STUDIES (Descriptive type)( for group I services main examination-TWO PAPERS)SYLLABUS.
PAPER-1
1. Modern history of India and Indian culture

2. Current events of national and international importance

3. Statistical analysis , graphs and diagrams

4. Social problems and other current sensitive issues

PAPER-2
1. Indian polity

2. Indian economy and geography of India

3. Role and impact of science and technology in the development of India

4. Tamil language, Tamil society, its culture and heritage

5. Tamil Nadu administration

Modern history of India and Indian culture will cover the broad history of the country from about the middle of the nineteenth century (advent of European invasion) and would include questions on Gandhi, Tagore, Nehru and Periyar. Statistical analysis, graphs and diagrams will include exercises to test the candidates ability to draw commonsense conclusions from information presented in statistical, graphical and diagrammatical form and to point out deficiencies, limitations and inconsistencies therein. Social problems and sensitive issues will include problems like bonded labour, child labour, gender bias, minorities, SC/ST, illiteracy, poverty, employment etc.

Indian polity will include questions on constitution of India, and Political System in India. On Indian economy and geography, questions will be put on planning in India and the physical, economic, social geography of India. On role and impact of science and technology, questions will be asked to test the candidate’s awareness of the latest developments in science and technology with special emphasis on applied aspects. Under Tamil language and culture questions will be put to test the candidate’s general awareness on those topics. Tamil Nadu administration will cover topics in general administration like organizational structure, functions, control, social welfare oriented programmes etc.

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Group I Answer Key with Question

GROUP I ANSWER KEY FOR 'C' SERIES


1. The carbon dioxide dissolved in water
A) enhances corrosion B) suppresses corrosion
C) prevents corrosion D) has no influence on corrosion.
Ans: A) enhances corrosion

2. Nylon is a
A) polyester B) polyethylene
C) polyamide D) polysaccharide.
Ans: C) polyamide

3. One carat of diamond is
A) 100 mg B) 200 mg
C) 300 mg D) 400 mg.
Ans: B) 200 mg

4. Sugar in blood and urine is tested with
A) Benedict’s solution B) Brine solution
C) Hypo solution D) Iodine solution
Ans: A) Benedict’s solution

5. TV antenna elements are made up of
A) aluminium B) copper
C) tin D) zinc.
Ans: A) aluminium

6. Dry ice is
A) liquid nitrogen B) purified ice
C) solid carbon dioxide D)supercooled ice.
Ans: C) solid carbon dioxide

7. The calorific value of the fuel is of the order
A) coal > peat > lignite > dried wood B) peat > lignite > coal > dried wood
C) lignite > peat > coal > dried wood D) coal > lignite > peat > dried wood.
Ans: D) coal > lignite > peat > dried wood.

8. Which one of the following is correctly matched ?
A) Baking soda — Sodium bicarbonate
B) Caustic soda — Calcium carbonate
C) Sodalime — Sodium carbonate
D) Washing soda — Calcium hydroxide.
Ans: A) Baking soda — Sodium bicarbonate

9. Which one of the following is correctly matched ?
A) Ascorbic acid — Vitamin
B) Insulin — Antiseptic
C) Penicillin — Antipyretic
D) Proteins — Polysaccharide.
Ans: A) Ascorbic acid — Vitamin

10. Consider the following statements :
Assertion (A) : Rusting of iron is quicker in sea water than in river water.
Reason (R) : Salinity helps in carrying current.
Now select your answer according to the coding scheme given below :
A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

11. Which hormone is responsible for ejection of milk ?
A) Oxytocin B) Prolactin
C) Thyroxine D) Testosterone.
Ans: A) Oxytocin

12. Rhinoceros is unique to which of the following sanctuaries ?
A) Periyar B) Gir forest
C) Kaziranga D) Jim Corbett.
Ans: C) Kaziranga

13. In human 45 numbers of chromosomes ( 22AA + XO ) is resulted in
A) Turner’s syndrome B) Down syndrome
c) Klinefelter’s syndrome D) Edwards’ syndrome.
Ans: A) Turner’s syndrome

14. Which of the following is called as royal disease ?
A) Anemia B) Leukemia
C) Haemophilia D) Colour blindness.
Ans: C) Haemophilia

15. Which one of the following is not a vaccine ?
A) Polio vaccine B) BCG
C) Anti-rabies D) Progesterone.
Ans: D) Progesterone

16. Mutation was discovered by
A) Morgan B) Huxley
C) Mendel d) Hugo deVries.
Ans: d) Hugo deVries.

17. The red colour of the blood is due to
A) albumin. B) haemoglobin
C) vitamin B6 D) relaxin.
Ans: . B) haemoglobin

18) Match List I with List II correctly and select your answer using the codes given below :
List 1 List II
a) Growth hormone, 1. Pancreas
b) Thyroxine. 2.Testis
c) Insulin 3.Pituitary
d) Testosterone 4. Thyroid,
Codes:
a b c d
A) 3 4 1 2
B) 4 3 2. 1
C) 1 2 3 4
D) 2 1 4 3.
Ans: A) 3 4 1 2

19) Match List 1 with List II correctly and select your answer using the codes given below :
List I List II
a) Artery 1. Pure blood
b) Vein 2. Oxygenated blood
c) Pulmonary artery 3. Deoxygenated blood
d) Pulmonary vein 4. Impure blood.
Codes:
a b c d
A) 2 3 4 1
b) 3 4 1 2
C) 4 1 2 3
D) 1 2 3 4.
Ans: C) 4 1 2 3

20) Consider the following statements :
Assertion (A) : Malarial parasite feeds on the blood of man.
Reason (R) : One of the parasite adaptations is loss of digestive system and hence depends on host for food.
Now select your answer according to the coding scheme given below :
A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B) Both (A) .and (R) are false
C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

21. Which one of the following is not one of the recommendations of the Second Labour Commission ( 2002 ) ?
A) A broad grouping of labour legislation
B) Permitting child labour in the unorganized sector
C) Notifying a national floor level of minimum wage
D) None of these.
Ans: B) Permitting child labour in the unorganized sector

22. To-day India’s external debt is ( 2001 figures )
A) $98.4 billion B) $ 151.8 billion
C) $61 billion D) $ 98.87 billion.
Ans: D) $ 98.87 billion.

23. On which of the following bases has the Planning Commission defined poverty in
India ?
A) 2400 k.cals B) 1800 k.cals
C) 2500 k.cals D) 2600 k.cals.
Ans: A) 2400 k.cals

24. What was the population of India as per the 2001 census ?
A) 102.7 crores B) 104.3 crores
C} 101.2 crores D) 108.1 crores.
Ans: A) 102.7 crores

25. World Environmental Day is celebrated on……………… every year.
A) 18th May B) 5th June
C) 24th October D) 25th December.
Ans: B) 5th June

26. The total number of Lok Sabha seats is
A) 500 B) 520
C) 620 D) 543.
Ans: D) 543.

27. Vande Mataram was first sung at the session of the Indian National Congress in
A) 1892 B) 1896
C) 1904 D) 1886.
Ans: B) 1896

28. Which of the following is an inland river port ?
A) Kolkata B) Mumbai
C) Chennai D) Tuticorin.
Ans: A) Kolkata

29. The correct descending order of the three categories of the chiefs was
A) Vendar, Kilar, Velir B) Vendar, Velir, Kilar
C) Velir, Vendar, Kilar D) Kilar, Velir, Vendar.
Ans: B) Vendar, Velir, Kilar

30. Match the Tamil books in List I with their authors in List II correctly and select your answer using the codes given below :
List I List II
(Books) (Authors)
a) Silappadikaram 1. Tiravalluvar
b) Manimekalai, 2. Ilango Adigal
c) Tirukkural 3. Agastiya
d) Akkaliyam 4. Sittalai Sattanar.
Codes :
a b c d
A) 2 4 1 3
B) 4 2 3 1
C) 2 3 1 4
D) 1 2 3 4
Ans: A) 2 4 1 3

31. Which of the following materials was a famous commercial product in ancient Tamil Nadu exported to other places ?
A) Fish B) Pearl
C) Pulses D) Dogs
Ans: B) Pearl

32. Name of the President of Tamil Nadu Congress at the time of Non-cooperation movement was
A) Rajaji B) Prakasam
C) K.V. Reddy D Periyar E.V.R.
Ans: D Periyar E.V.R.
33. In the last General Elections of 2004 the DMK won
A) 12 seats B) 16 seats
C) 14 seats D) 10 seats.
Ans: B) 16 seats

34. The longest river of Tamil Nadu is
A) Kaveri B) Pennayar
C) Tamirabarani D) Vaigai.
Ans: A) Kaveri

35. Recently developed Hyundai Car Industry is located in the district of
A) Kancheepuram B) Tiruvallur
C) Cuddalore D) Karur.
Ans: A) Kancheepuram

36. “The philosophers must he the kings.” Who said this ?
A) Jawaharlal Nehru B) Plato
C) Aristotle D) Indira Gandhi.
Ans: B) Plato

37. Who is the author of the book “A Foreign Policy of India” ?
A) I.K. Gujral B) B.G. Deshmukh
C) L.K. Advanl D] A.J, Toynbee
Ans: A) I.K. Gujral

38. The Vaikkom Satyagraha was launched in 1924 for
A) opening the temples to the low caste Hindus
B) fighting against the exploitation by the landlords
C) removal of press restrictions
D) democratisation of the administration of Travancore state.
Ans: A) opening the temples to the low caste Hindus

39.Mcmahon line lies between which of the following countries ?
A) India and Pakistan B) India and Bangladesh
C) India and China D) India and Myanmar.
Ans: C) India and China

40. Which of the following largely influenced the Hindustani music ?
A) Arab-Persian music B) Persian music
C) Central Asian tradition D) All of these.
Ans: D) All of these.

41. Which state produces the bulk of natural rubber in India ?
A) Tamil Nadu B) Karnataka
C) Andhra Pradesh D) Kerala.
Ans: D) Kerala.

42. The total area of India is about
A) 31 lakh sq. km B) 37 lakh sq. km
C) 32 lakh sq. km D) 35 lakh sq. km.
Ans: C) 32 lakh sq. km

43. Consider the following statements :
Assertion (A) : The equatorial region has dense evergreen forests having a variety of trees and other plants.
Reason (R) : The equatorial region has uniformly hot wet conditions throughout the year.
Now select your answer according to the coding scheme given below :
A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

44. Which of the following is a planetary wind ?
A) The westerlies B) Sea breeze
C) Fohn D) Mistral.
Ans: A) The westerlies

45. Where does the third largest concentration of population lie ?
A) North America B) Eurasia
C) South America D) Africa.
Ans: A) North America

46. Director General of newly established National Investigation Agency ( NIA ) is
A) Y.S. Dadwal B) Radha Vinod Raju
C) P.R. Raju D) None of them.
Ans: B) Radha Vinod Raju

47. Place known for windmills is
A) Muppandal B) Tirupur
C) Nanguneri D) None of these.
Ans: A) Muppandal

48. Tirupur is located on the banks of river
A) Bhavani B) Noyyal
C) Periyar D) Palar.
Ans: B) Noyyal

49. In Tamil Nadu sugar mill is located at
A) Lalgudi B) Tirunelveli
C) Karur D) Cuddalore.
Ans: D) Cuddalore.

50. As per census report 2001, percentage of scheduled caste people of population in Tamil Nadu is
A) 20% B) 19%
C) 26% D) 10%.
Ans: B) 19%

51. Samudragupta permitted a foreign king Meghavarman to build a monastery at Gaya. Meghavarman belongs to
A) Nepal B) Sri Lanka
C) Bhutan D) Pakistan.
Ans: B) Sri Lanka

52. Consider the following statements :
I. Most of the inscriptions of the Pallavas were in Sanskrit.
II. Mahendravarman-I composed a burlesque called
Mattavilasa Prahasana.
III. The Chinese traveller Hiuen Tsang visited Kanchi during the period
of Pallavas.
IV. Dingnaga was the logician and the author of Nyaya Bhashya.
Of the statements :
A) I alone is correct
B) I and II are correct
C) I, II and III are correct
D) all are correct.
Ans: C) I, II and III are correct

53. Which one of the following rulers had a uniform administration all over the country ?
A) Gupta rulers B) Mughal rulers
C) British rulers D) All of these rulers.
Ans: C) British rulers

54. Match List I with List II correctly and select your answer using the codes
given below :
List I List II
a) Lalit Kala Academy 1. National Academy of Letters
b) Sangeet Natak Academy 2. National institution to highlight
human biological and cultural evolution
c) Sahitya Academy 3. National Academy of Fine Arts
d) Rashtriya Manava Sangrahalaya 4. National Academy of Music, Dance
and Drama.
Codes :
a b c d
A) 3 4 2 1
B) 4 3 2 1
C) 1 3 4 2
D) 3 4 1 2.
Ans: D) 3 4 1 2.

55. The chief features of the temples constructed by the Cholas were their
A) Vimanas B) Assembly halls for the devotees
C) Massive pillars D) Gopuras.
Ans: A) Vimanas

56. The first verse drama ( opera ) in Tamil is
A) Harichandra Natakam B) Nandan Charitram
C) Shakuntala Natakam D) Savitiri Natakam.
Ans: A) Harichandra Natakam

57. The Kailasanath temple at Kanchipuram was built by
A) Nandivarman II B) Mahendravarman I
C) Narasimhavarman II D) Dandivarman.
Ans: C) Narasimhavarman II

58. The Indus Valley people built their house using
A) stone B) wood
C) bricks D) all of these.
Ans: C) bricks

59. The main occupation of the Paleolithic people was
A) agriculture B) animal husbandry
C) fishing D) hunting and gathering food.
Ans: D) hunting and gathering food.

60. Two greatest pioneers in the course of widows’ education were
A) D.K. Karve and Pandit Ramabai
B) M.G. Ranade and R.G. Bhandarkar
C) Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar and Keshav Chandra Sen
D) B.M. Malabari and K. Sridharalu Naidu.
Ans: C) Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar and Keshav Chandra Sen

61. The aspect of the caste system which was particularly condemned by all social reformers was
A) Varna system B) Jati system
C) Ashram system D) Untouchability.
Ans: D) Untouchability.

62. The fundamental duties are incorporated in Article 51 A of the Constitution of India by the
A) 41 st Amendment Act B) 42nd Amendment Act
C) 43rd Amendment Act D) 44th Amendment Act.
Ans: B) 42nd Amendment Act

63.Which one of the following is not considered as part of the civil society ?
A) Non-Governmental organisations B) Caste-based associations
C) Legislature D) Family.
Ans: B) Caste-based associations

64. The Supreme Court of India was set up by the
A) Regulating Act, 1773 B) Pitts India Act, 1784
C) Charter Act, 1813 D) Charter Act of 1833.
Ans: A) Regulating Act, 1773

65. Ordinance of Governor has to be passed by the Assembly within
A) 6 weeks b) 8 weeks
C) 10 weeks D) 12 weeks.
Ans: A) 6 weeks

66. What is the maximum gap permissible between two sessions of the Parliament ?
A) One month B) Three months
C) Six months D) One year.
Ans: C) Six months

67. Which of the following states has a separate constitution ?
A) Madhya Pradesh B) Uttar Pradesh
C) West Bengal D) Jammu & Kashmir.
Ans: D) Jammu & Kashmir.

68. Which of the following statements regarding the fundamental duties contained in the Constitution of India are correct ?
I. Fundamental duties can be enforced through writ jurisdiction.
II. Fundamental duties have formed a part of the Constitution of India
since its adoption,
III. Fundamental duties have become a part of the Constitution of India in accordance with the recommendations of the Swaran Singh
Committee.
IV. Fundamental duties are applicable only to citizens of India.
Of the statements :
A) I, II and III are correct B) I, II and IV are correct
C) II and III are correct D) III and IV are correct.
Ans: D) III and IV are correct.

69. Consider the following statements :
Assertion, (A) : The 73rd Amendment granted constitutional status to the Gram Sabha.
Reason (R) : The Balwantrai Mehta Committee mentioned the Cram Sabha.
Now select your answer according to the coding scheme given below :
A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

70. Planning Commission was established in 1950 through
A) a constitutional amendment B) a Supreme Court order
C) an executive order D) a decision by the Parliament.
Ans: C) an executive order

71. In which year was Legislative Council abolished in Tamil Nadu ?
A) 1984 B) 1985
C) 1986 D) 1987.
Ans: C) 1986

72. The major emphasis in the First Five-Year Plan was on
A) employment generation B) agriculture
C) export promotion D) industry.
Ans: B) agriculture

73. UNICEF was established in the year
A) 1946 B) 1956
C) 1949 D) 1954.
Ans: A) 1946

74. Which one of the following is correct ?
A) Human Development Index — United Nations
B) PQLI — 1996
C) Social indicators — India
D) Welfare measures — Morris.
Ans: A) Human Development Index — United Nations

75. Indian Telephone Industries Ltd. is located at
A) Mumbai and Bangalore B) Bangalore
C) Mumbai and New Delhi D) Mumbai and Chennai,
Ans: B) Bangalore

76. Raurkela steel plant was set up with the assistance from
A) USSR B) UK
C) USA D) West Germany.
Ans: D) West Germany.

77. The Oil and Natural Gas Commission was set up in
A) 1956 B} 1957
C) 1959 D) 1961.
Ans: A) 1956

78. The Deputy Chairman of Planning Commission
A) is the Prime Minister
B) is the Planning Minister
C) holds the rank of a cabinet minister
D) is an economist of repute.
Ans: C) holds the rank of a cabinet minister

79. World Trade Organisation was started in the year
A) 1984 B) 1994
C) 1995 D) 1996.
Ans: C) 1995

80. In Tamil Nadu, the district with the highest sex ratio as per 2001 census is
A) Tuticorin : B) Tirunelveli
C) Ramnad D) Nilgiris.
Ans: A) Tuticorin

81. The Green Revolution has led to marked increase in
I. productivity of wheat
II. productivity of pulses
III. regional inequalities
IV. inter-personal inequalities.
Of the statements :
A) I and II are correct B) III and IV are correct
C) I, III and IV are correct D) all are correct.
Ans: C) I, III and IV are correct

82. The chief centre or meeting point of the Indo- Roman trade was
A) Arikamedu B) Alexandria
C) Madurai D) Musiri.
Ans: D) Musiri

83. The Indus Valley Civilisation is about
A) ten thousand years old B) seven thousand years old
C) five thousand years old D) three thousand years old.
Ans: C) five thousand years old

84. Upanishads are books on
A) religion B) yoga
C) philosophy D) law.
Ans: C) philosophy

85. Which one of the following is correctly matched ?
A) Ellora caves — Saka
B) Mahabalipuram — Rashtrakutas
C) Meenakshi temple — Pallavas
D) Khajuraho — Chandelas
Ans: D) Khajuraho — Chandelas

86. Which of the following were included in the Cripps proposals ?
I. India was promised dominion status.
II. Setting up of a constitution-making body consisting of the elected representatives from British India and members from the princely states.
III. Setting up of an Executive Council composed of Indians alone.
IV. It suggested partition of India.
Of the statements :
A) I, II and III are correct
B) II, III and IV are correct
C) I, III and IV are correct
D) I, II and IV are correct.
Ans: A) I, II and III are correct

87. The Jain temples known for the finest marble carvings in India are situated at
A) Gwalior B) Jaipur .
C) Gandhara D) Dilwara.
Ans: D) Dilwara

88. Who prepared the draft of the ‘Quit India’ resolution ?
A) Acharya Kripalani B) Jawaharlal Nehru
C) Sardar Vallabhbliai Patel D) Pattabhi Sitaramayya,
Ans: B) Jawaharlal Nehru

89. Arrange the following events in chronological order and mark the correct choice from the options given below :
I. Death of Bal Gangadhar Tilak
II. Nagpur session of the Congress
III. The Moplah uprising
IV. The inaguration of Vishwa Bharati at Shantlniketan.
A) IV, III, II and I B) III, IV, II and I
C) II, I, III and IV D) III, II, IV and I.
Ans: Options are wrong. Correct option is I , II , IV , III

90. Who is called as the father of pure Tamil movement ?
A) Bhavanar B) Bharathi
C) Thira, V. Kalyanasundaranar D)’ Maraimalai Adikal.
Ans: D)’ Maraimalai Adikal

91.Ans: B) 16

92. The boys and girls in a college are in the ratio 3 : 2. If 20% of the boys and 25% of the girls are adults, the percentage of students who are not adults is
A) 67.5% B) 82.5%
C) 78% D) 58%.
Ans: C) 78%

93. Five years ago the average age of A, B, C, D was 45 years. By including X the present average of all the five is 49 years. Then the present age of X is
A) 64 years B) 48 years
C) 45 years D) 40 years.
Ans: C) 45 years

94. The difference between simple interest and the compound interest on Rs. 800 at 5% per annum for 1 year is
A) Rs. 81 B) Rs. 41
C) Rs. 56.50 D) None of these.
Ans: D) None of these.

95. A boat moves downstream at the rate of 1 km in 6 minutes and upstream at the rate of 1 km in 10 minutes. The speed of current is
A) 2 km/hr B) 1 km/hr
C) 1.5 km/hr D) 2.5 km/hr.
Ans: A) 2 km/hr

96. The ratio of number of boys and girls in a school of 720 students is 7 : 5. How many more girls should be admitted to make the ratio 1:1?
A) 90 B) 220
C) 120 D) 240.
Ans: C) 120

97.Ans: B

98.Ans: D) 89

99.Ans: B) 90

100.Ans: D) 2

101.Which of the following is used for crystal structure studies ?
A) Infrared spectroscopy
B) Raman spectroscopy
C) Atomic emission spectroscopy
D) X-ray diffraction.
Ans: D) X-ray diffraction.

102. The scientist who first sent electromagnetic waves to distant places is
A) James Clark Maxwell B) Heinrich Hertz
C) Thomas Alva Edison D) Baird.
Ans: D) Baird.

103. In the electrical circuit of a house the fuse is used
A) to regulate the current B) to load
C,) as safety device D) as step-down device.
Ans: C,) as safety device

104. Hexadecimal is the number system with base
A) 10 B) 16
C) 8 D) 2.
Ans: B) 16

105.Ans: D

106.Ans: C

107. In which one of the following places is electricity generated from hydel power ?
A) Neyveli B) Ennore
C) Tuticorin D) Mettur.
Ans: D) Mettur.

108. In an LCR circuit which will give a phase lead to current than voltage ?
A) L (inductance ) B) C ( capacitance )
C) R ( resistance ) D) all together.
Ans: B) C ( capacitance )

109. A drop of water is spherical due to
A) surface tension B) low pressure
C) air resistance D) viscosity of water.
Ans: A) surface tension

110. The frequency of ultrasound wave is typically
A) above 20 kHz B) above 20,000 kHz
C) below 20 kHz D) below 2 kHz.
Ans: A) above 20 kHz

111. Good plant sources of choline are
A) yeast B) mushroom
C) green leaves D) cereal grains.
Ans: B) mushroom

112. Ornithophily refers to
A) pollination through wind ‘B) pollination through birds
C) pollination by insects b) dispersal of seeds by wind.
Ans: ‘B) pollination through birds

113. Identify the chemosynthetic bacteria among the following :
A) Rhizobium B) Clostridium
C) Nitrobacter D) Beggiatoa.
Ans: B) Clostridium

114. The removal of water from the plants in the form of liquid droplets is
A) guttation B) transpiration
C) transduction D) transformation.
Ans: A) guttation

115. ‘Sirenin’ is a sex hormone produced by
A) alga B) fungus
C) lichen D) bacterium.
Ans: B) fungus

116. Which one of the following is a total stem parasite ?
A) Cuscuta B) Drosera
C) Viscum D) Vanda.
Ans: A) Cuscuta

117.The plant which was successfully used in the production of edible vaccine is A) pea B) mango
C) potato D) cabbage.
Ans: D) cabbage.

118. Identify the characteristic feature of a prokaryotic cell:
A) Presence of cell wall B) Presence of 80s ribosome
C) Absence of genetic material D) Presence of 70s ribosome.
Ans: D) Presence of 70s ribosome.

119. During respiration the oxidative phosphorylation takes place in
A) matrix of chloroplast B) matrix of mitochondrion
C) inner membrane of mitochondrion D) grana of chloroplast.
Ans: C) inner membrane of mitochondrion

120. Mitochondria are present in all cells, except
A) yeast B) bacteria
C) fungi D) algae.
Ans: B) bacteria

121. Consider the following statements :
Assertion (A) : A rocket that is sent to space, has to give an extra force at certain distance from earth.
Reason (R) : At a certain distance from earth, earth is encircled by a ring of
Vacuum.
Now select the correct answer according to the coding scheme given below :
A) (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
B) (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) C)
C) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct
D) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.
Ans: A) (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

122.Ans: C

123. Fuel cells are used in
A) air crafts B) electric locomotives
C) space crafts D) submarines.
Ans: C) space crafts

124. From which of the following biodiesel is obtained ?
A) Ethyl alcohol B) Cellulose
C) Bagasse D) Jatropha.
Ans: D) Jatropha.

125. The plant group which yields Taxol’ belongs to
A) Bryophyte B) Gymnosperm
C) Pteridophyte D) Lichen
Ans: B) Gymnosperm

126. Alga used for hydrocarbon production is
A) Gracilaria B) Chlorella
C) Botryococcus D) Sargassum.
Ans: C) Botryococcus

127. When did National Biodiversity Act of India come into existence ?
A) 2002 B) 1992
C) 1997 D) 1967.
Ans: A) 2002

128. World AIDS Day is observed on
A) 1st January B) 4th April
C) 1st December D) 20th August
Ans: C) 1st December

129.What least number must be added to 1056 to get a number exactly divisible by 23?
A) 21 B) 25
c) 3 D) 2.
Ans: D) 2.

130. The ratio of two numbers is 13 : 15 and their LCM is 39780. The numbers are
A) 2652,3060 B) 884,1020
C) 884,1040 D) 670,1340.
Ans: B) 884,1020

131. So far how many American Presidents visited India ?
A) Three B) Five
C) Six D) Seven.
Ans: B) Five

132. Terrorists attacked Indian Parliament on
A) November 13,2001 b) September 13,2001
C) December 13,2001 D) December 13,2002.
Ans: C) December 13,2001

133. The Election Commission In 2000 derecognised which national party ?
A) Nationalist Congress B) Janata Dal
C) CPI(M) D) CPI.
Ans: B) Janata Dal

134. In which year was Mandal Commission report implemented ?
A) 1989 B) 1990
C) 1991 D) 1992.
Ans: D) 1992.

135. After being elected as the Speaker of the Lok Sabha a person
A) remains a member cf his party
B) is not a member of the Parliament
C) becomes a non-party man
D) may or may not remain a party man.
Ans: D) may or may not remain a party man.

136. Place known for silk fabrics is
A) Coimbatore B) Mumbai
C) Kancheepuram D) Surat.
Ans: C) Kancheepuram

137. What is the expansion of CLRI ?
A) Central Laser Research Institute
B) Central Latex Research Institute
C) Central Leather Research Institute
D) Culture and Language Research Institute.
Ans: C) Central Leather Research Institute

138. Match List I with List II correctly and select your answer using the codes given
below:
List I List II
a) Neemleaf 1. LordVinayaka
b) Arasu leaf 2. Lord Shiva
c) Tulasi leaf 3. Amman
d) Vilvumleaf 4. Lord Vishnu.
Codes :
a b c d
A) 2 1 4 3
B) 1 2 3 4
C) 3 1 4 2
D) 4 3 2 1.
Ans: C) 3 1 4 2

139.Which one of the following fruits is not included in the list of ‘Mukkani’ ?
A) Jackfruit B) Mango
C) Banana D) Sapota.
Ans: D) Sapota.

140.Ans: B

141.Match List I with List II correctly and select your answer using the codes given below:
List I List II
a) Nilgiris 1. Fold mountain
b) Vosges 2. Block mountain
c) Alps 3. Volcanic mountain
d) Mt. Fuji 4. Residual mountain.
Codes:
a b c d
A) 2 3 4 1
B) 3 4 2 1
C) 4 2 1 3
D) 2 1 4 3.
Ans: D) 2 1 4 3.

142. The climate around Bikaner can be described as
A) Tropical monsoon B) Hot desert
C) Mediterranean type D) Semi-arid steppe.
Ans: B) Hot desert
143. In which state does the maximum area of black soil occur ?
A) Gujarat B) Maharashtra
C) Karnataka D) Andhra Pradesh.
Ans: B) Maharashtra

144. India is the seventh largest country in the world. It occupies……………… of
world area.
A) 2.4% B) 3.4%
C) 4.2% D) 4.3%.
Ans: A) 2.4%

145. The Khasi and Jaintia hills are located in
A) Arunachal Pradesh B) Meghalaya
C) Manipur D) Nagaland
Ans: B) Meghalaya

146. The largest producer of chillies in the world is
A) India B) Bangladesh
C) Pakistan D) Sri Lanka.
Ans: A) India

147.Ans: A

148. Match List I with List II correctly and select your answer using the codes given below :
List I List II
a) Mt. Everest 1. South America
b) Mt. Kilimanjaro 2. Europe
c) Mt. Elbrus 3. Africa
d) Mt. Aconcagua 4. Asia.
Codes:
a b c d
A) 1 2 3 4
B) 2 3 4 1
C) 3 4 1 2
D) 4 3 2 1.
Ans: D

149. Which of the following is the smallest in terms of area ?
A) Vatican city B) Monaco
C) Nauru D) San Marino.
Ans: A) Vatican city

150. The maximum daily range of temperature can be observed at
A) Chennai B) Thiruvananthapuram
c) Delhi D) Mumbai.
Ans: c) Delhi

151. Who established the’Pathini cult’?
A) Nedunjeraladan B) Karikalan
C) ElangoAdlgal D Senguttuvan.
Ans: D Senguttuvan.

152. The Carnatic wars were fought between
A) the Nawab of Carnatic and the British
B) the Nawab of Carnatic and the French
c) the British and the French
D) none of them.

Ans: c) the British and the French
153. Consider the following statements :
Assertion (A) : The Kushanas were of Central Asian origin.
Reason (R) : They were a derivative of the Yue-ehi tribe
Now select your answer according to the coding scheme given below :
A Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

154. Consider the following statements
Assertion (A) : Dr. Annie Besant organised the Home Rule movement
against the British rule.
Reason (R) : She wanted to organise all sections of Indian people on the basis of a single political slogan above religious considerations.
Now select your answer according to the coding scheme given below :
A) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct
B) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct
C) Both (A) and (R) are not correct
D (A) is correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Ans: D (A) is correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

155. Which one of the following is not the minor deity according to Aryans ?
A) Mitra B) Adityas
C) Asvins D) Vasus.
Ans: D) Vasus

156. A great exponent of Mahayanism was
A) DIngnaga B) Dharmakirti
C) Nagarjuna D) Vasubandhu Asanga.
Ans: C) Nagarjuna

157. Which of the following monuments was built in memory of the soldiers who lost their lives in World War I ?
A) Gateway of India B) India Gate
C) VijayPath D} Victoria Memorial Hall.
Ans: B) India Gate

158. Suez Canal was first opened in the year
A) 1839 B 1849
C) 1859 D) 1869.
Ans: D) 1869.

159. Which is described in Ajanta paintings ?
A) Jainism B) Buddhism
C) Saivism D) Vaishnavism.
Ans: B) Buddhism

160. Where were the principles of Panchsheel regulated ?
A) Paris B) New Delhi
C) Pandong D) Cairo.
Ans: C) Pandong

161. Who said “Patriotism is religion and religion is love for India” ?
A) Swami Vivekananda B) Raj Narain Bose
C) Bankim Chandra Chatterji D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak.
Ans: A) Swami Vivekananda

162. Which of the following is not a representative of Buddhist art ?
A) Stupa B) Vihara
C) Chaitya D) Relic towers.
Ans: D) Relic towers.

163. The masterpieces of Mauryan art were the
A) Stupas B) Sculptures
C) Ashoka Pillars D) both (B) and (C).
Ans: C) Ashoka Pillars

164. The people of Indus Valley civilization worshipped
A) Pashupati B) Indra and Varuna
C) Brahma D) Vishnu.
Ans: A) Pashupati

165. Wardha Scheme of Basic Education is prloposed by
A) Jawaharlal Nehru B) Liaquat Ali Khan
C) Mahatma Gandhi D) M.A. Jinnah.
Ans: C) Mahatma Gandhi

166. Compared to Gupta age the caste system was more rigid during
A) the Mauryan age B) the time of Harshavardhana
C the Sakas D) the Cholas.
Ans: D) the Cholas.

167. Which of the following was a Chola king ?
A) Nedunjheliyan
B) Karikala
C) Nedunjeraladan
D) Aryappadai Kadanda Nedunjhelian.
Ans: B) Karikala

168. The Shiva temple at Thanjavur was built by Rajaraja the Great who was
A) a Cholaruler B) a Pallava ruler
C) a Pandya ruler D) none of them.
Ans: A) a Cholaruler

169. The Indus Valley civilization was discovered in the.year
A) 1922 B) 1910
C) 1822 D) 1824.
Ans: A) 1922

170. Gangaikonda Cholapuram temple was built by
A) Rajaraja I B) Vikrama Chola
C) Rajadhiraja D) Rajendran I.
Ans: D) Rajendran I.

171. District administration stands for
I. Law and order administration within a district.
II. Revenue administration within a district.
III. Developmental administration within a district
IV. Public administration within a district.
Of the statements :
A) I alone is correct B) II alone is correct
C) I, II and III are correct D) IV alone is correct.
Ans: C) I, II and III are correct

172. How many languages are there in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
A) Eighteen languages B) Nineteen languages
C) Sixteen languages D) Twenty-one languages.
Ans: D) Twenty-one languages.

173. In which list does the Union Government enjoy exclusive powers ?
A) Union List B) State List
C) Concurrent List D) both (A) and (B).
Ans: A) Union List

174. Consider the following statements :
Right to information is necessary in India because it
I. increases people’s participation in administration.
II.makes administration more accountable to people.
III.makes administration more innovative.
IV.makes people aware of administrative decision making.
Of the statements :
A) I, II and III are correct B) II, III and IV are correct
C) I, II and IV are correct D) I, III and IV are correct.
Ans: C) I, II and IV are correct

175. In which year was High Court in Madras established ?
A) 1862 B) 1871
C) 1881 D) 1891.
Ans: A) 1862
176. In which by-election to the Parliament did the ADMK win for the first time ? A) Karur b) Andipatti
C) Dindigul D) Madurai.
Ans: C) Dindigul

177.Ans: B

178. Who was the Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu during the time of Independence of India?
A) O.P. Ramasamy Reddiar B) Kamaraj
C) Rajaji D) Bakthavatchalam.
Ans: A) O.P. Ramasamy Reddiar
179. The total number of members of Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly is
A) 231 B) 232
C) 233 D) 234.
Ans: D) 234.

180. In Tamil Nadu farmer market is introduced by
A) M.G. Ramachandran B) Janaki Ramachandran
C) Karunanidhi D) Jayalalithaa.
Ans: C) Karunanidhi

181. The district with highest population in Tamil Nadu as per 2001 census is
A) Madurai B) Chennai
C) Coimbatore D) Trichi.
Ans: c)COIMBATORE

182. The district with highest literacy rate in Tamil Nadu is
A) Kanniyakumari B) Tirunelveli
C) Cuddalore D) Thanjavur.
Ans: D) Thanjavur.

183. The density of population in Tamil Nadu is ( as per 2001 census )
a) 478 B) 456
C) 411 D) 626.
Ans: a) 478

184. SEBI has introduced rolling settlement for selected shares under the method
A) all shares have to be paid for on the day of purchase
B) purchaser has to make advance payment for the share
C) purchase can be set off against sales
D) payment has to be settled at the end of 5th day.
Ans: D) payment has to be settled at the end of 5th day.

185. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Indira Awas Yojana ?
A) Soil and water conservation works
B) Construction of rural roads
C) Providing houses at free of cost to the members of SC/ST and free bonded labourers
D) Land development and waste land development.
Ans: C) Providing houses at free of cost to the members of SC/ST and free bonded labourers

186. Match List I with List II correctly and select your answer using the codes given below:
List I List II
a) IFCI 1. 1955
b) ICICI 2. 1964
c) IDBI 3. 1948
d) EXIMBank 4. 1971.
Codes :
a b c d
A) 4 3 2 1
B) 3 2 4 1
c 3 1 2 4
D) 2 3 4 1.
Ans: C) 3 1 2 4

187. Consider the following statements :
I. The expansion of the public sector was based on Industrial Policy Resolution, 1956.
II. Govt, has announced New Industrial Policy in July, 1991.
III. Govt, has not announced any industrial policy at all.
Of the statements :
A) I alone is correct B) II alone is correct
c) I and II are correct D) all are correct.
Ans: c) I and II are correct

188. On whose vision was the term ‘democratic socialism’ described ?
A) Mahatma Gandhi B) Smt. Indira Gandhi
C) Jawarhalal Nehru D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
Ans: C) Jawarhalal Nehru

189. Which one of the following is correctly matched ?
A) Industrial policy statement — 2002
B) Report on the committee on disinvestment
of shares ( Rangarajan Committee ) — 1987
C) Common Minimum Programme of
United Front Govt. — 1996
D) Start of tenth Five-Year Plan — 2005.
Ans: C) Common Minimum Programme of
United Front Govt. — 1996

190. For which purpose is the finance commission appointed ?
A) To make recommendation for devolution of non-plan revenue resources
B) To earn foreign exchange
C) to recommend measures for profit making public sector enterprises
D) to impose taxes.
Ans: A) To make recommendation for devolution of non-plan revenue resources

191. Consider the following statements :
Assertion (A) : Median of { 7, 2, 12, 5, 9} is 7.
Reason (R) : The middle most value of a data is called median.
Now select your answer according to the coding scheme given below :
A) (A) is true, but (R) is false
B) (A) alone is true
C) (R) alone is true
D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Ans: D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

192. Match List I with List II correctly and select your answer using the codes given below: List I List II
a) Correlation coefficient 1. Mean = Median = Mode
b) Coefficient of variation 2. Least
c) For a symmetrical distribution 3. Percentage variation
d) Mean deviation from Median 4. Cannot exceed unity.
Codes :
a b e d
A) 4 3 2 1
B) 4 2 3 1
c) 4 3 1 2
D) 3 4 2 1.
Ans: c) 4 3 1 2

193. Which one of the following is correctly matched 7
A) Harmonic mean — A measure of skewness
B) Mean deviation — An average
C) Analysis — An arrangement of data
D) Sales and profit — Positive correlation.
Ans: D) Sales and profit — Positive correlation.
194. Which one of the following is correctly matched ?
A) Data — A collection of objects
B) Mode — A well defined measure
C) Range — Difference between the largest and the
smallest items of a data

D) Q.D. — A best measure of dispersion.
Ans: C) Range — Difference between the largest and the
smallest items of a data
195. The average of three numbers is 135. The largest number is 180 and the difference of the other two is 25. The smallest number is
A) 130 B) 125
C) 120 , D 100.
Ans: D 100.

196. By frequency distribution we mean the classification of data according to
A) dissimilarities B) similarities
c) class intervals D) magnitude.
Ans: c) class intervals

197. Value of M.D. of { 5, 5,5, 5, 5 } from Median is
A) 0 B) 2
C) 4 D) 5.
Ans: A) 0
198. Y = 3 + 2x, then the coefficient of correlation between x and y
A) -1 B) 0
C) 0.5 D) 1
Ans: D) 1

199. Which one of the following measures cannot be computed for {2, 7, 5, 10, 4 } A) Mean B) Median
C) Mode D) Harmonic Mean.
Ans: C) Mode

200. Consider the following statements :
Assertion (A) : Histogram is a graphical presentaton of data.
Reason (R) : Statistical data can be represented in the form of graphs.
Now select your answer according to the coding scheme given below :
A) Both (A) and (R) are true
B) Both (A) and (R) sue false
C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A) Both (A) and (R) are true

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